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Topic: becauseHElives and G-d and L-rd

RhodesianRidgeback
Community Member
Member # 7105

posted

quote:
Originally posted by Michael Harrison:
Being an American in France, he would automatically be considered the rudest person in the world.

HeHehe True Dat, True Dat!

--------------------
There is only a perspective seeing, only a perspective "knowing"; and the more affects we allow to speak about one thing, the more eyes, different eyes, we observe one thing, the more complete will our "concept" of this thing, our "objectivity," be. Friedrich Nietzsche,

Posts: 16 | From: Phoenix, Az | Registered: Mar 2008 | IP: Logged |

Michael Harrison
Advanced Member
Member # 6801

posted

Being an American in France, he would automatically be considered the rudest person in the world. [happyhappy]

Posts: 3273 | From: Charlotte N.C. | Registered: Sep 2007 | IP: Logged |

Eden
unregistered

posted

My dear becauseHElives. You said to Eden

quote:
i understand what you are trying to say but it is wrong eden....

what is your name sir?

my name dale. Only the rudest person in the world would presume to call me anything else.

RE the bolded part, Dale, let's say your name was Peter.

If you, Peter, moved to France, you would be the rudest person if you KEPT INSISTING that almightly you be called Peter instead of Pierre.
All the Peters in France are called Pierre, so the French people would not be the rude persons in the world for calling you Pierre, but you would be the rudest person in the world for insisting that "your name is Peter and it is NOT Pierre!!!"

So, to repeat what you said, becauseHElives:

quote:
{Eden}, I understand what you are trying to say but it is wrong eden...

what is your name sir?

My name dale. {Peter} Only the rudest person in the world would presume to call me anything else.

Pierre. Is it so awful to be calle Pierre on behalf of the LORD's work to save people? Dale Peter, Dale Pierre, who cares?

1 Corinthians 9:22
To the weak became I as weak, that I might gain the weak: I am made all things to all men, that I might by all means save some.

Know what I mean, Dale Pierre?
with love, eden

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Michael Harrison
Advanced Member
Member # 6801

posted

And I forgot! You know, you get some people who like to test everyone in a setting such as this. So your post just sounded a little suspicious, potentially.

Posts: 3273 | From: Charlotte N.C. | Registered: Sep 2007 | IP: Logged |

Michael Harrison
Advanced Member
Member # 6801

posted

Yea! Well thanks for the BD blessing. Yew too.

Well, you know, God is love. I like that big IS. I like the way N Grubb says it, "God is love, not God has love." So if he is love, then we see that He is patient and kind. He is never boastful, proud, haughty, selfish or rude. That is the Living Bible version of 1Cor 13. But people claiming to represent Him righteously do not care to compare their behavior with this filter, and they feel justified in lashing out, cutting short, ridiculing and so on. To them this is being righteous. What they don't understand is that these actions are a work of the flesh, and not of the Spirit. But that doesn't matter. It feels good to them to 'do' it as though there is sanctification in putting others in their place, thereby making them Holy unto God. Rather, this they do to impress men. The devil loves it. The pulpit becomes the bully pulpit when this goes unchecked.

Oh, and thank you for letting me call Him Jesus. I believe that it is the name that the Greeks used in His day.

Anything that anyone ministers that is not Him, is DOA. It is not good treasure out of a good heart. It comes from the unyielded heart. If the grape vine could dispense gasoline, we may think it great. That aside, what kind of fruit would it produce if it could waver between sap and gasoline?

Posts: 3273 | From: Charlotte N.C. | Registered: Sep 2007 | IP: Logged |

RhodesianRidgeback
Community Member
Member # 7105

posted

quote:
Originally posted by Michael Harrison:
Either you are quite educated RhodesianRidgeback, or you are a good deceiver. Help me here. Whose side are you on?

Side? I thought this was discussion. All I am doing is showing how fruitless both sides are when it comes to argueing language. I also respect those who wish to call Him "Jesus" and I expect the same respect when I call Him "Yeshua" or any other name I choose. But to call me or anyone a cultist over language is absurd. As well as calling someone else pagan over their usage of language. I guess I am on my side. And deceiver? What would be the motive? No, I am just one who loves good conversation now and again. Blessings.

PS "March 27" We Have that in common. Happy Birthday Ol Timer!

--------------------
There is only a perspective seeing, only a perspective "knowing"; and the more affects we allow to speak about one thing, the more eyes, different eyes, we observe one thing, the more complete will our "concept" of this thing, our "objectivity," be. Friedrich Nietzsche,

Posts: 16 | From: Phoenix, Az | Registered: Mar 2008 | IP: Logged |

becauseHElives
Advanced Member
Member # 87

posted

i understand what you are trying to say but it is wrong eden....

what is your name sir?

my name dale.

only the rudest person in the world would presume to call me anything else.

they may have trouble pronouning the name but they will try to pronounce it as i spoke it.

--------------------
Strive to enter in at the strait gate:for many, I say unto you will seek to enter in, and shall not be able. ( Luke 13:24 )

Posts: 4578 | From: Southeast Texas | Registered: Jun 2002 | IP: Logged |

Eden
unregistered

posted

Hi becauseHElives, you said

quote:
Carol, if you go to another country, any country do you know what your name will be?

Any country, pick one ... your name will be Carol isn't that amazing.

My dear becauseHElives. names DO CHANGE from country to country. Even in the case of Carol, in Holland Carol becomes Karel and in Poland Carol becomes Karol.

And let's take a few other names, shall we?

In Spanish, Peter becomes Pedro and in French Peter becomes Pierre.

In Spanish, Mary becomes Maria and in French Mary becomes Marie.

In Spanish, James become Santiago, and in French William becomes Guillaume.

In Spanish, John becomes Juan and in French John becomes Jean.

And so on. The fact is, the national names are the ones that the native population is familiar with and by which they can be saved. The LORD YHWH and Jesus are NOT just interested in how we worship Them, but the God of Israel is ALSO interested in saving people.

And saving people is done by using national names so that people within that nation CAN BE SAVED.

In my opinion, God is even more interested in getting people saved than God is whether we have disovered His original Hebrew names, or not.

And getting people saved is done by translators using native known words that are in the natives' own language and is their language EQUIVALENT of a Hebrew or a Greek word. So that they can be saved:

Romans 11:14
If by any means I may provoke to emulation them which are my flesh, and might save some of them.

2 Timothy 2:10
Therefore I endure all things for the elect's sakes, that they may also obtain the salvation which is in Christ Jesus with eternal glory.

with love, eden

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Michael Harrison
Advanced Member
Member # 6801

posted

LOL becausely! I am gonna mess around and get to know you. The fisherman thang is great insight! And your point (i know that it wasn't addressed to me) about your name is well taken.

Posts: 3273 | From: Charlotte N.C. | Registered: Sep 2007 | IP: Logged |

becauseHElives
Advanced Member
Member # 87

posted

I try to impress no one with my intellect, I have none, I am as the unlearned fisherman Yahshua chose to be His disciples.

I am taught by the Spirit not by men....

I know if I go to Africa, China, Mexico, Israel or any where else on this planet when I introduce myself by the bastard formed name my parents gave me all that address me will call me by that name not some other name.

--------------------
Strive to enter in at the strait gate:for many, I say unto you will seek to enter in, and shall not be able. ( Luke 13:24 )

Posts: 4578 | From: Southeast Texas | Registered: Jun 2002 | IP: Logged |

Michael Harrison
Advanced Member
Member # 6801

posted

Either you are quite educated RhodesianRidgeback, or you are a good deceiver. Help me here. Whose side are you on?

Posts: 3273 | From: Charlotte N.C. | Registered: Sep 2007 | IP: Logged |

RhodesianRidgeback
Community Member
Member # 7105

posted

quote:
Originally posted by becauseHElives:
RhodesianRidgeback Yahweh's Names is not gibberish...

His Name is Yahweh in any tongue as my name is Dale in any tongue unless someone perverts it.

Your name is Emek or even Gai Hebrew long before it was even Dale, or maybe Deiru in Japanese long before the English language, In fact the English "Dale" wasn't even popularized until about the 1930's, but your misgiven if you think the name "Dale" is only said in the English. In fact its roots are probably far from that and your name is in fact bastardized from another language, so I suggest you find your roots and change your name.

--------------------
There is only a perspective seeing, only a perspective "knowing"; and the more affects we allow to speak about one thing, the more eyes, different eyes, we observe one thing, the more complete will our "concept" of this thing, our "objectivity," be. Friedrich Nietzsche,

Posts: 16 | From: Phoenix, Az | Registered: Mar 2008 | IP: Logged |

becauseHElives
Advanced Member
Member # 87

posted

RhodesianRidgeback Yahweh's Names is not gibberish...

His Name is Yahweh in any tongue as my name is Dale in any tongue unless someone perverts it.

--------------------
Strive to enter in at the strait gate:for many, I say unto you will seek to enter in, and shall not be able. ( Luke 13:24 )

Posts: 4578 | From: Southeast Texas | Registered: Jun 2002 | IP: Logged |

RhodesianRidgeback
Community Member
Member # 7105

posted

quote:
Originally posted by becauseHElives:
RhodesianRidgeback unless you interpret that gibberish it does not have any meaning here …..

Exact point! One persons "gibberish - language" is another persons "meaning" Would that need interpreting? [dance]

Posts: 16 | From: Phoenix, Az | Registered: Mar 2008 | IP: Logged |

RhodesianRidgeback
Community Member
Member # 7105

posted

"Ani Maamin - I Believe" "Ein Sof - the Endless" = YHVH [dance]

Posts: 16 | From: Phoenix, Az | Registered: Mar 2008 | IP: Logged |

becauseHElives
Advanced Member
Member # 87

posted

Carol, if you go to another country, any country do you know what your name will be?

Any country, pick one ... your name will be Carol isn't that amazing.

Yet the Name given to the Saviour of the World, the only Name in Heaven or in Earth by which a human can be saved has been changed to suit someones sick perverted idea.

You know, I'm not the brightest bulb in the world but when I see an error, no matter what the error, I do my very best not to make that same error again.

When I learn the correct Name of my Saviour, I started using that Name instead of the perverted names some translator had chose.

I take the 3rd command serious.

Thou shalt not take the name of the Lord thy God in vain: for the Lord will not hold him guiltless that taketh his name in vain.

Knowing His Name but choosing to call Him something else because of tradition, to me is taking His Name in vain.

--------------------
Strive to enter in at the strait gate:for many, I say unto you will seek to enter in, and shall not be able. ( Luke 13:24 )

Posts: 4578 | From: Southeast Texas | Registered: Jun 2002 | IP: Logged |

becauseHElives
Advanced Member
Member # 87

posted

RhodesianRidgeback unless you interpret that gibberish it does not have any meaning here …..

--------------------
Strive to enter in at the strait gate:for many, I say unto you will seek to enter in, and shall not be able. ( Luke 13:24 )

Posts: 4578 | From: Southeast Texas | Registered: Jun 2002 | IP: Logged |

RhodesianRidgeback
Community Member
Member # 7105

posted

Ein Sof Ani Maamin

Posts: 16 | From: Phoenix, Az | Registered: Mar 2008 | IP: Logged |

RhodesianRidgeback
Community Member
Member # 7105

posted

Yĕhowshuwa` / Yeshua / Y'shua / Yahshua / Iēsu / Iēsus / Iēsous / IESVS / Jesu / Jesum / ΙΗCΟΥC / ΙΗC / Jeshua / Joshua / Jesus /

Funny or Sad?

The argument's over a name. Proponants claim that Hebrew names people are cults, And Hebrew names people claim that other bastardized the
name.

Who decides these things? Who decides a cult? In fact who decides who is right? Seems all this creates is more division and not for the better.

Why do you even have a problem over one using the earliest Hebrew/Aramaic name or the latest English name? Majority views seem to be so damaging in this day and age, to much wisdom if you ask me.

Matthew 7:14 Because strait [is] the gate, and narrow [is] the way, which leadeth unto life, and few there be that find it.

Matt 7:22-23 Many will say to me in that day, Lord, Lord, have we not prophesied in thy name? and in thy name have cast out devils? and in thy
name done many wonderful works? And then will I profess unto them, I never knew you: depart from me, ye that work iniquity.

Jesus is the Greek rendering of the Hebrew name Yeshua, spelled variously as Y'shua, Yahshua, Yahoshua or Joshua.

In many writings the commonly known Greek form Jesus is utilized; because the name Yeshua is not generally known amongst English-speaking
believers.

But you will notice that I too, often use the original Hebrew form Yeshua or Yahshua.

This name means 'the Salvation of Yahweh.'

In other words 'Yeshua is Yahweh's agent or means of salvation.'

He is Yehovah in His role as Saviour.

The gospel of Matthew says "you shall call his name JESUS [Iēsous (ησος) - Greek Textus Receptus][From the Hebrew Yĕhowshuwa`(יהושוע , יהושע)], for he shall save his people from their sins." (Matthew 1:21)

One could also argue at length on pronunciations and spellings of the Saviour's name; but I will leave that to others.

One could also argue on which name to use, Aramaic, Hebrew, Greek, Latin, English etc. I will not argue it, so let every man be settled in his own heart and mind.

Each person will need to decide for himself. After all, very few Gentile believers know Greek or Hebrew.

Question: Where did the name "Jesus" come from if his real name is Yeshua?

Answer: The Bible was not written in English.

What we read in English today are translations from other languages.

First Fact: The "New Testament" was written in Greek.

Hence, the name "Jesus" is found nowhere in the Scriptures, it is a translation of the Greek name "Iesous" (pronounced "[ee]yeh-sooce" "ē-ā-sü's"). ref. lexicon for Iēsous (Strong's G2424).

"Iesous" came over into the Latin "Jesu" (pronounced "yehsoo") and finally into English as "Jesus." So in the most technical sense, saying "Jesus" is saying a twice-removed translation of the name we find in the "New Testament" Scriptures.

When we move backwards, we also find that "Iesous" is itself a translation of another name.

According to Matthew 1:21, we find the meaning of the name that is translated "Jesus" in English.

It says, "he will save his people from their sins."

In the Hebrew, the name "Yehoshua" (translated "Joshua" in English) means "the Lord (Adonai) saves".

Also in Hebrew, the word for "salvation" is "yeshuah'".

Finally, we also find a contraction if "Yehoshua" in the Hebrew Scriptures in the form of "Yeshua," which means, "he will save" (just like in Matthew 1:21).

We find this name in the Chronicles as well as Ezra and Nehemiah, usually translated in English "Jeshua".

The name Jesus is an anglicization of the Hebrew name that would have more closely been pronounced as spelled Yeshua.

Jesus probably lived in Galilee for most of his life and he probably spoke Aramaic and Hebrew.[1]

The name "Jesus" is an English transliteration of the Latin (Iēsus) which in turn comes from the Greek name Iesous (Ιησους).

The name has also been translated into English as "Joshua".[2]

Further examination of the Septuagint finds that the Greek, in turn, is a transliteration of the Hebrew/Aramaic Yeshua (ישוע) (Yeshua - he will
save) a contraction of Hebrew name Yehoshua (יהושוע Yeho - Yahweh [is] shua` - deliverance / rescue, usually Romanized as Joshua).

Scholars believe that one of these was likely the name that Jesus was known by during his lifetime by his peers.[3]

[1] Brian Knowles: Which Language Did Jesus Speak - Aramaic or Hebrew?
[2] "Origin of the Name of Jesus Christ". Catholic Encyclopedia.
[3] Durant, Will. Caesar and Christ. New York: Simon and Schuster, 1944. p. 558; John P. Meier, A Marginal Jew. New York: Doubleday, 1991
vol. 1:205-7.

Hebrew Aramaic ישוע (Yeshua), meaning "YHWH rescues".

Aramaic is a group of Semitic languages with a 3,000-year history.

The earliest Aramaic alphabet was based on the Phoenician script.

In time, Aramaic developed its distinctive 'square' style. The ancient
Israelites and other peoples of Canaan adopted this alphabet for writing their own languages.

Thus, it is better known as the Hebrew alphabet today. This is the writing system used in Biblical Aramaic and other Jewish writing in
Aramaic.

The other main writing system used for Aramaic was developed by Christian communities: a cursive form known as the Syriac alphabet.

Hebrew יהושע (Yehoshua) As a language, Hebrew belongs to the Canaanite group of languages.

Hebrew (Israel) and Moabite (Jordan) are Southern Canaanite while Phoenician (Lebanon) is Northern Canaanite.

Canaanite is closely related to Aramaic and to a lesser extent South-Central Arabic.

Whereas other Canaanite languages and dialects have become extinct, Hebrew survived. Hebrew flourished as a spoken language in Israel from
the 10th century BC until just before the Byzantine Period in the 3rd or 4th century AD.

After the 2nd century AD when the Roman Empire exiled most of the Jewish population of Jerusalem following the Bar Kokhba revolt, Hebrew
gradually ceased to be a spoken language, but remained a major literary language. Letters, contracts, commerce, science, philosophy, medicine, poetry, and laws were written in Hebrew, which adapted by borrowing and
inventing terms.

The need to express scientific and philosophical concepts from Classical Greek and Medieval Arabic motivated Medieval Hebrew to borrow
terminology and grammar from these other languages, or to coin equivalent terms from existing Hebrew roots, giving rise to a distinct
style of philosophical Hebrew. This is used in the translations made by the Ibn Tibbon family. (Original Jewish philosophical works were usually
written in Arabic.)

Another important influence was Maimonides, who developed a simple style based on Mishnaic Hebrew for use in his law code, the Mishneh
Torah. Subsequent rabbinic literature is written in a blend between this style and the Aramaized Rabbinic Hebrew of the Talmud.

By the early half of the 20th century, modern scholars reached a nearly unanimous opinion that Aramaic became a spoken language in the land of
Israel by the start of Israel's Hellenistic Period in the 4th century BCE, and thus Hebrew ceased to function as a spoken language around the same time.

However, during the latter half of the 20th century, accumulating archaeological evidence and especially linguistic analysis of the Dead
Sea Scrolls has qualified the previous consensus.

Alongside Aramaic, Hebrew also flourished as a living spoken language.

This has long been suggested in the Christian Bible in the story of Paul speaking to a crowd of Jews in Hebrew (rather than Aramaic) in Acts
21:40. Hebrew flourished until near the end of the Roman Period, when it continued on as a literary language by the Byzantine Period in the 4th century CE.

The exact roles of Aramaic and Hebrew remain hotly debated. A trilingual scenario has been proposed for the land of Israel. Hebrew
functioned as the local mother tongue, Aramaic functioned as the international language with the rest of the Mideast, and eventually
Greek functioned as another international language with the eastern areas of the Roman Empire. Communities of Jews (and non-Jews) are known, who immigrated to Judea from these other lands and continued to speak Aramaic or Greek.

Cited refrerences:

Hoffman, Joel M, In the Beginning: A Short History of the Hebrew Language. New York: NYU Press. ISBN 0-8147-3654-8.
Izre'el, Shlomo, "The emergence of Spoken Israeli Hebrew", in: Benjamin Hary (ed.), The Corpus of Spoken Israeli Hebrew (CoSIH): Working Papers I (2001)
Kuzar, Ron, Hebrew and Zionism: A Discourse Analytic Cultural Study. Berlin & New York: Mouton de Gruyter 2001. ISBN 3-11-016993-2, ISBN
3-11-016992-4.
Sáenz-Badillos, Angel, A History of the Hebrew Language (trans. John Elwolde). Cambridge, England: Cambridge University Press. ISBN
0-521-55634-1
Laufer, Asher. "Hebrew", in: Handbook of the International Phonetic Association. Cambridge University Press 1999. ISBN 0-521-65236-7, ISBN
0-521-63751-1.

Medieval and later developments:

It was not until the Middle Ages that the letter W (originally a ligature of V and V) was added to the Latin alphabet, to represent
sounds from the Germanic languages which did not exist in medieval Latin, and only after the Renaissance did the convention of treating I
and U as vowels, and J and V as consonants, become established. Prior to that, the former had been merely glyph variants of the latter.

J is the tenth letter in the modern Latin alphabet; it was the last of the 26 letters to be added. Its name in English is jay.[1][2]

It was formerly jy (from French ji), and in some dialects, mainly of Scottish English, it still is.[1]

J was originally an alternative version of I. There was an emerging distinctive use in Middle High German. Petrus Ramus (d. 1572) was the
first to explicitly distinguish I and J as representing separate sounds. Originally, both I and J represented /i/, /iː/, and /j/; but Romance
languages developed new sounds (from former /j/ and /g/) that came to be represented as I and J; therefore, English J (from French J) has a sound
value quite different from /j/.

Hebrew also influenced the English J, which in a few cases is used in place of the more normal Y. The classic example is Hallelujah which is
pronounced the same as "Halleluyah". See the Hebrew yodh for more details.

[1] a b "J", Oxford English Dictionary, 2nd edition (1989)
[2] "J" and "jay", Merriam-Webster's Third New International Dictionary
of the English Language, Unabridged (1993)

'A Glossary of Later Latin' (Alexander Souter, Oxford University Press) states that "in the semi-vocalic sense, [J] is not used till about AD
800 and then only in S. Italy and Spain".

In other words, a distinction between I/i (vowel) and J/j (semi-vowel/semi-consonant, the Latin consonant) was first made around
the year 800 - very much earlier than the current version of this article states.

"The differentiation was made first in Spanish, where, from the very introduction of printing, we see j used for the consonant, and i only
for the vowel.

For the capitals, I had at first to stand for both (as it still does in German type, and in all varieties of Gothic or Black Letter); but before 1600 a capital J consonant began to appear in Spanish. (See, for example, Minsheu's Spanish Dictionary of 1599, where I and J are
strictly distinguished, though the I and J words are put in one series.)

In German typography, almost from the first, some printers employed a tailed form of the letter or j initially, to distinguish the consonant sound; but this was by no means generally established till much later.

According to Watt (Biblietheca Britannica), Louis Elzevir, who printed at Leyden 1595-1616, is generally credited with making the modern
distinction of u and v, i and j, 'which was shortly after followed by the introduction of U and J among the capitals by Lazarus Zetzner of
Strasburg in 1619'.

In England, individual attempts to differentiate i and j were made already in the 16th c., as by Richard Day, who printed books in London
after 1578, and George Bishop, who printed the translation of La Primaudaye's French Academie in 1586, with i, j, u, v, differentiated as
in modern use, but had no capital J or U."

Authors have put forward numerous explanations to explain the origin of the name 'Jesus' (cf. Matthew 1:21), and have offered a still larger
number of explanations for the meaning of the name.

The name is related to the Hebrew יְהוֹשֻעַ Joshua, which is a theophoric name first mentioned within the Biblical tradition in Exodus
17:9 as one of Moses' companions (and, according to tradition, later successor).

Breaking the name down, we see that there are two parts: יהו Yeho, a theophoric reference to YHWH, the distinctive personal name of the God
of Israel, plus the three letter root שוע, relating to the noun shua.

Due to disputes over how to render שוע lexically,[1][2][3][4][5] there are a number of generally accepted phrases this combination can translate to:

Yeho-shua
Yhwh saves
Yhwh (is) salvation
"Yhwh" (is) a saving-cry
"Yhwh" (is) a cry-for-saving
"Yhwh" (is) a cry-for-help
Yhwh (is) my help

Biblical Hebrew יְהוֹשֻעַ [Yehoshua`] underwent an orthographical change into the Biblical Aramaic (some say late Biblical Hebrew) form יֵשוּעַ
[Yeshua`] (for example, Ezra 2:2[6]) because of a phonological shift where guttural phonemes weakened, including [h].[7]

Late Biblical Hebrew usually shortened the traditional theophoric element [Yahu] יהו at the beginning of a name to יו [Yo-], and at the
end to יה [-yah]. In [Yoshua`], it palatized to [Yeshua`].

This shortened Hebrew name was common, the Hebrew Bible mentions ten individuals called it, and was also adopted by Aramaic, and Greek
speaking Jews.

By the time the New Testament was written, the Septuagint had already transliterated ישוע [Yeshua`] into Koine Greek as closely as possible in the 3rd-century BCE, the result being ησος [Iēsous].

Where Greek has no equivalent of the semitic letter ש shin [sh], it was replaced with a σ sigma [s], and a masculine singular ending [-s] was added.

Many scholars believe some dialects dropped the final letter ע `ayin [`]. The Greek writings of Philo of Alexandria[8] and Josephus
frequently mention this name.

From Greek, ησος [Iēsous] moved into Latin at least by the time of the Vetus Latina.

The morphological jump this time was not as large as previous changes between language families.

ησος [Iēsous] was transliterated to Latin IESVS, where it stood for many centuries.

The Latin name has an irregular declension, with a genitive, dative, ablative, and vocative of Jesu, accusative of Jesum, and nominative of
Jesus.

Minuscule (lower case) letters were developed around 800 and some time later the U was invented to distinquish the vowel sound from the
consonantal sound and the J to distinguish the consonant from I.

Similarly, Greek minuscules were invented about the same time, prior to that the name was written in Capital letters: ΙΗCΟΥC or abbreviated as: ΙΗC with a line over the top, see also Christogram.

Modern English "Jesus" derives from Early Middle English Iesu (attested from the 12th century).

The name participated in the Great Vowel Shift in late Middle English (15th century). The letter J was first distinguished from 'I' by the
Frenchman Pierre Ramus in the 16th, but did not become common in Modern English until the 17th century, so that early 17th century works such as
the first edition of the King James Version of the Bible (1611) continued to print the name with an I. [9]

[1] "שוע", Ernest Klein, A Comprehensive Etymological Dictionary of the Hebrew Language (New York: MacMillan Publishing Company 1987)
[2] Talshir, M. H. Segal, A Grammar of Mishnaic Hebrew (Tel Aviv: 1936), p. 146.
[3] Strong's Concordance H3091
[4] Philo, De Mutatione Nominum, §21
[5] Brown, Driver, Briggs, Gesenius, Hebrew and English Lexicon With an Appendix Containing the Biblical Aramaic (Hendrickson, 1985), ISBN
0-913573-20-5. Cf. Blue Letter Bible, H3442
[6] Strong's H3442
[7] Elisha Qimron, The Hebrew of the Dead Sea Scrolls (Harvard Semitic
Studies: Scholars Press 1986), p.25
[8] Philo Judaeus, De ebrietate in Philonis Alexandrini opera quae
supersunted. P. Wendland, Berlin: Reimer, 1897 (repr. De Gruyter, 1962)vol. 2:170-214, Section 96, Line 2.
[9] Image of the first edition of the King James Version of the Bible, Gospel of Luke. From http://nazirene.peopleofhonoronly.com/.

I purposely left out other countries and the origens of the names that they use to show just the basic of language and how it came to us.

Now Looking at names in perspective it is neither cultic nor pagan, it is simply language.

Blessings to all.

And by the way I prefer to call my LORD and Master YHVH and His only begotten Yeshua haMeshiach.

Aletheuo

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There is only a perspective seeing, only a perspective "knowing"; and the more affects we allow to speak about one thing, the more eyes, different eyes, we observe one thing, the more complete will our "concept" of this thing, our "objectivity," be. Friedrich Nietzsche,

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Eden
unregistered

posted

becauseHElives, I am all for using the original Hebrew names of the Creator who made heaven and earth.

However, I think the same principle should be applied to "Jewish" and "Israelite". Once you know that Asher was never "Jewish" but was "Israelite" and Issachar was never "Jewish" but was "Israelite" and "Gad" was never "Jewish" but was "Israelite", and so on, let's also call them what the Creator calls them, namely "Israelite", and not "Jewish".

Dear brother becauseHELives, the 10 tribes of northern Israel were NEVER CALLED JEWISH in their history.

So I am all for using the Hebrew names of the Creator once I found out what the names were, but we should be equally diligent with whom the Bible, God's Word, calls "Jewish" and whom the Bible, God's Word, calls "Israelite". This is no time to quote non-Christian Wikipedia to me or to the Creator. This is a time to upgrade from "Jewish" to "Israelite" wherever it is called for.

love, eden

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Carol Swenson
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posted

A rose by any other name would smell as sweet.

He has many different names around the world. I hope that those believers, whatever language they speak, love Him as intensely as you do.

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becauseHElives
Advanced Member
Member # 87

posted

Would a celestial being announce the coming Savior to Jews who spoke Hebrew (or Aramaic), proclaiming a Romanized, Grecian name beginning with a letter J that did not exist, but would originate in a European tongue 1500 years later? Remember it was to Israel, a Semitic people who spoke and understood Hebrew, that His saving Name was first revealed.

Would HEBREW parents give their baby a hybridized GREEK name devoid of any meaning – especially such an important name that would identify the very Savior of the world?

The Church did not get to the place of apostasy that was prophesied by Yeshua, John (Yochanan), Paul, Peter (Kefa), James (Yaakov) and the other disciples over night.

But by slow determination of the Truth, take away a little here and there, just a little at a time and you destroy Truth and bring about apostasy to that last generation, so they will not endure sound doctrine but would rather believe the lies of Satan.

Constantine and the Roman Catholic Church hated everything about the Jews, Israelites what ever term you deem correct, but the fact is they hated the Jews.

Constantine and the Roman Catholic Church wanted to rid the Church of everything that reminded anyone of the Jewish Faith connected to the Faith in Yeshua.

In the third century the councils started cutting away Truth and adding lies.

They cut away all observances to the Feast of Israel and add Pagan feast in their place.

Giving the church Easter, Christmas, Lent, Good Friday and such trash in place of Passover, Unleven Bread, First Fruits, Pentecost

Changing the Sabbath from the seventh day, to the first day.

Yahweh help the poor pitiful people that will not receive the Truth once it is delivered to them,

As the scriptures say they would rather believe a lie and be damned than to except the Truth and change their traditions!

Thessalonians 2:10-12
, "Because they did not receive the love of the truth, that they might be saved. And for this reason God will send them strong delusion, that they should believe a lie: that they all might be damned who believed not the truth."

http://64.233.167.104/search?q=cache:eosQIUj4HTcJ:www.ynca.com/Mini%2520Studies/mistaken_j.htm+letter+j+did+not+exist+till&hl=en&ct=clnk&cd=4&gl=us

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Strive to enter in at the strait gate:for many, I say unto you will seek to enter in, and shall not be able. ( Luke 13:24 )

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yahsway
Advanced Member
Member # 3738

posted

In spite of attempts made to justify the "translating" of the Fathers name and His Sons name, the fact remains: A personal name cannot be translated! It is simply not done. The name of every single person on earth remains the same in ALL languages.

Our Savior was born of a hebrew maiden, not from a Greek one.

The dictionary admits to the real true Name of our Savior-Jehoshua(Yeshua), it then states that the commonly known substitute "Jesus" was adapted from the Greek.

Then the dictionary traces the substitute name back to the Latin Iesus, and the Greek Iesous. It then traces the origin of the name Iesous back as being possibly adapted from the Greek healing goddess Ieso(Iaso).

The Iaso is the usual Greek form, while Ieso is from the Ionic dialect of the Greeks.

There is no resemblance or identifiablity between our Saviors name Yeshua and the Greek substitute for it Iesous. The Fathers name Yah cannot be seen in the Greek Iesous or in the Latin Iesus, or in the English version Jesus.

I personally believe it was a attempt by the Hellanized Greeks to bring in pagans to christianity. Most greeks loathed the Jews of that time and if one does a word study on Iesus, Ihsous, ect.... they might see why the name was changed.

The angle of Yah did not tell Mary (Miriam) "you shall concieve a Son and call His name Jesus."

He told her she would call His name Yeshua, Salvation, for He will save His people. Remember the Greek word is Iesous and the Latin is Iesus. There were NO "J"'s in either dialect at that time.

No wonder we read the testimony of the Christian M. Turrentin, in describing the state of Christianity in the 4th century saying...

"that is was not so much the (Roman) Empire that was brought over to the Faith, as the Faith that was brought over to the Empire; not the Pagans who were converted to Christianity, but Christianity that was converted to paganisim."

Yeshua came only in His Fathers name. No other.

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Eden
unregistered

posted

Hi, becauseHElives, you said to Eden

quote:
you are so right the KJV was consistent in the translation of the name of God....7000 times they mistranslated Yahweh's Name but not one time did they mistranslate baal's name.

Could you explain that please? Whenever the Hebrew word YHWH appeared, the KJV translators consistently translated it LORD in the English version of 1611.

And whenever the Hebrew word Elohim appeared, the KJV translators consistently translated it God in the English version of 1611.

And whenever the Hebrew word Adonai appeared, the KJV translators consistently translated it Lord in English.

becauseHElives, did you mean to say that the KJV translators translated those 3 names of the Creator into 3 English words but the KJV translators left the Hebrew word "Baal" as "Baal" each time? That's what you meant, right?

Well, that's true, the KJV translators did leave Baal as Baal or lord with a lowercase "l" in "lord", whereas Adonai became "Lord" always, without exception.

Probably "Lord" was considered higher than "lord", and in order to distinguish "Lord" from "lord" in the narrative, which before writing became more commonplace, was orally said, it was better at times to also use "baal" for "lord", so that the hearer and/or reader could understand who was being talked about.

No sinister plot, really, to diminish Elohim or YHWH or Adonai, but the intent to try to make the scriptures understandable may have been the onlty motive.

It is also a fact that when Bible translators try to translate Hebrew words into a native language, some of which did not even have a written language and only an oral language, that the translators had to cast about for a word in the native language which even conveyed the concept of a Creator, and that native word the translators used, and people understood what was meant and got saved.

Sure, some later learned the Hebrew names of the Creator and respects the Hebrew names evenmore than the names given in their native language for the purpose of salvation.

So I use YHWH and I use Yeshua and I use Elohim but I also use LORD and Lord and God, because the purpose ultimately is, salvation.

So becauseHElives, in another thread you used the word "Jewish" to designate what should have been "Israelite", because "Jewish" only applied to the house of Judah or the southern kingdom and never to the northern kingdom house of Israel.

Yet you were using "Jewish" when you should have used "Israelite". When I pointed this out to you, you responded with a quote from NON-Christian Wikipedia about "why Jewish was okay", etc.

I submit to you, once you knew the Hebrew names of the Creator to be YHWH, Adonai, and Elohim, and Yeshua, you began to love them more than the English names of the Creator.

So why do you persist on calling the Israelites Jewish when Ephraim, Manasseh, Naphtali, Zebulon, Issachar and Gad and Dan and Asher were always only Israelites and never were Jewish? Why is it okay to quote non-bornagain Wikipedia when it comes to "Jewish" and "Israelite" but "oh, we MUST use the correct Hebrew names once we know them" notion?

Can you explain that further for me, becauseHElives?

love, eden

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Carol Swenson
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posted

International Standard Bible Encyclopedia

Yahweh (Jehovah)

The name most distinctive of God as the God of Israel is Jehovah (יְהוָה, a combination of the tetragrammaton (YHWH) with the vowels of ’Ǎdhōnāy, transliterated as Yehōwāh, but read aloud by the Hebrews ’ădhōnāy). While both derivation and meaning are lost to us in the uncertainties of its ante-Biblical origin, the following inferences seem to be justified by the facts: (1) This name was common to religions other than Israel’s, according to Friedr. Delitzsch, Hommel, Winckler, and Guthe (EB, under the word), having been found in Babylonian inscriptions. Ammonite, Arabic and Egyptian names appear also to contain it (compare Davidson, Old Testament Theol., 52 f); but while, like Elohim, it was common to primitive Semitic religion, it became Israel’s distinctive name for the Deity . (2) It was, therefore, not first made known at the call of Moses (Ex 3:13-16; 6:2-8), but, being already known, was at that time given a larger revelation and interpretation: God, to be known to Israel henceforth under the name “Yahweh” and in its fuller significance, was the One sending Moses to deliver Israel; “when I shall say unto them, The God of your fathers hath sent me unto you; and they shall say to me, What is his name? what shall I say unto them? And God said … I WILL BE THAT I WILL BE … say … I WILL BE hath sent me” (Ex 3:13, 14 margin). The name is assumed as known in the narrative of Genesis; it also occurs in pre-Mosaic names (Ex 6:20; 1 Ch 2:25; 7:8). (3) The derivation is from the archaic ḥāwāh, “to be,” better “to become,” in Biblical Hebrew hāyāh; this archaic use of w for y appears also in derivatives of the similar ה, ḥayah, “to live,” e.g. ה, ḥawwah in Gen 3:20. (4) It is evident from the interpretative passages (Ex 3; 6) that the form is the fut. of the simple stem (Ḳal) and not future of the causative (Hiph‛ı̄l) stem in the sense “giver of life”—an idea not borne out by any of the occurrences of the word. The fanciful theory that the word is a combination of the future, present and perfect tenses of the verb, signifying “the One who will be, is, and was,” is not to be taken seriously (Stier, etc., in Oehler’s Old Testament Theology, in the place cited.). (5) The meaning may with some confidence be inferred from Origen’s transliteration, Iaō, the form in Samaritan, Iabe, the form as combined in Old Testament names, and the evident signification in Ex 3 and other passages, to be that of the simple future, יַהְוֶה, yahweh, “he will be.” It does not express causation, nor existence in a metaphysical sense, but the covenant promise of the Divine presence, both at the immediate time and in the Messianic age of the future. And thus it became bound up with the Messianic hope, as in the phrase, “the Day of Yahweh,” and consequently both it and the Septuagint translation Kurios were applied by the New Testament as titles of Christ. (6) It is the personal name of God, as distinguished from such generic or essential names as ’Ēl, ’Ĕlōhı̄m, Shadday, etc. Characteristic of the Old Testament is its insistence on the possible knowledge of God as a person; and Yahweh is His name as a person. It is illogical, certainly, that the later Hebrews should have shrunk from its pronunciation, in view of the appropriateness of the name and of the Old Testament insistence on the personality of God, who as a person has this name. the American Standard Revised Version quite correctly adopts the transliteration “Yahweh” to emphasize its significance and purpose as a personal name of God revealed.

Jesus

(Iēsous) is the Greek equivalent of the Hebrew “Joshua” (יְהוֹשֻׁעַ, yehōshua‛), meaning “Yahweh is salvation.” It stands therefore in the Septuagint and Apocrypha for “Joshua,” and in Acts 7:45 and Heb 4:8 likewise represents the Old Testament Joshua; hence, in the Revised Version (British and American) is in these passages rendered “Joshua.” In Mt 1:21 the name as commanded by the angel to be given to the son of Mary, “for it is he that shall save his people from their sins”. It is the personal name of the Lord in the Gospels and the Acts, but generally in the Epistles appears in combination with “Christ” or other appellative (alone in Rom 3:26; 4:24; 1 Cor 12:3; 2 Cor 11:4; Phil 2:10; 1 Thess 4:14; Heb 7:22; 10:19, etc.).

Christ

(Christos) is the Greek equivalent of the Hebrew “Messiah” (מָשִׁיחַ, māshı̄aḥ; compare in the New Testament, Jn 1:41; 4:25, “Messiah”), meaning “anointed”. It designates Jesus as the fulfiller of the Messianic hopes of the Old Testament and of the Jewish people. It will be seen below that Jesus Himself made this claim. After the resurrection it became the current title for Jesus in the apostolic church. Most frequently in the Epistles He is called “Jesus Christ,” sometimes “Christ Jesus” (Rom 8:1, 2, 39; 1 Cor 1:2, 30; 4:15; Eph 1:1; Phil 1:1; Col 1:4, 28 the King James Version; 1 Thess 2:14, etc.), often “Christ” alone (Rom 1:16 the King James Version; Rom 5:6, 8; 6:4, 8, 9; 8:10, etc.). In this case “Christ” has acquired the force of a proper name. Very frequently the term is associated with “Lord” (kúrios)—“the (or “our”) Lord Jesus Christ” (Acts 11:17; 15:11 the King James Version; Acts 16:31 the King James Version; Acts 20:21; 28:31; Rom 1:7; 5:1, 11; 13:14; 1 Cor 16:23, etc.).

New Testament Names of God

The variety of names which characterizes the Old Testament is lacking in the New Testament, where we are all but limited to two names, each of which corresponds to several in the Old Testament. The most frequent is the name “God” (Θεός, Theós) occurring over 1,000 times, and corresponding to El, Elohim, etc., of the Old Testament.

1. God

It may, as Elohim, be used by accommodation of heathen gods; but in its true sense it expresses essential Deity, and as expressive of such it is applied to Christ as to the Father (Jn 20:28; Rom 9:5).

2. Lord

Five times “Lord” is a translation of δεσπότης, despótēs (Lk 2:29; Acts 4:24; 2 Pet 2:1 the King James Version; Jude 1:4; Rev 6:10 the King James Version). In each case there is evident emphasis on sovereignty and correspondence to the ’Ādhōn of the Old Testament. The most common Greek word for Lord is Κύριος, Kúrios, representing both Yahweh and ’Adhonai of the Old Testament, and occurring upwards of 600 times. Its use for Jehovah was in the spirit of both the Hebrew scribes, who pointed the consonants of the covenant name with the vowels of Adhonay, the title of dominion, and of the Septuagint, which rendered this combination as Kurioš. Consequently quotations from the Old Testament in which ה, Yahweh occurs are rendered by Κυριος, Kurioš. It is applied to Christ equally with the Father and the Spirit, showing that the Messianic hopes conveyed by the name Yahweh were for New Testament writers fulfilled in Jesus Christ; and that in Him the long hoped for appearance of Yahweh was realized.

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yahsway
Advanced Member
Member # 3738

posted

becauseHelives, and Pres. Bush says that the Muslims and the Christians worship the SAME "god". Go figure.

a "god" needs to be IDENTIFIED such as

I worship the God of Abraham Isaac and Jacoor I worship Yahweh God.

The term/title god could mean any number of gods out there.

Yes its true that the writers of the KJV capitalized the title God for the readers comprehension as to which god they were referring to in the scriptures, but they could have easily called Him The Mighty One for Elohim, or Master for Adonai, or simply used His name Yah.

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becauseHElives
Advanced Member
Member # 87

posted

Eden,

you are so right the KJV was consistent in the translation of the name of God....7000 times the mistranslated Yahweh's Name but not one time did they mis translate baal's name.

I always call you Eden, never anything else...i don't think that is your real name but it is all I know to call you so people know I am talking to you.

there was a time when most people knew who you were talking about when you said "I believe in God"

but that time has passed, there are many Gods people refer to when they say there is only one God.

A while back we were on a trip and stopped at a motel... on the wall it said "Praise God"... the owner was Muslim.

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Strive to enter in at the strait gate:for many, I say unto you will seek to enter in, and shall not be able. ( Luke 13:24 )

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yahsway
Advanced Member
Member # 3738

posted

The English word for the Hebrew Adonai is "Master"

The English word for the Hebrew word Elohim is "Mighty One"

There is no where in scripture that forbids us to call Him by His name, Yah.

The word, (title) "God" has been substituted for His name.

How and when did this happen? How was it asopted into oue modern language?

The Encyclopedia Britannica 11th edition says this-

"GOD"- the common Teutonic word for a personal object of religious worship, applied to ALL those superhuman beings of the heathen mythologies. The word 'god' on the conversion of the Teutonic races to Christianity was adopted as the names of the one Supreme Being."

Websters 20th Century Dictionary says this-

"The word is common to Teutonic tongues, It was applied to heathen deities and LATER, when the Teutonic peoples were converted to Christianity, the word was Elevated to the Christian sense."

If the word "God" is then used as a Substitute for the Name (His Name), it must be accepted that the word God has now become a name again instead of a title. But "God" is not His name, and there are soooo many verses in the scriptures that speak of His name.

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Eden
unregistered

posted

yes...probably too enamoured of my own [youpi]

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Carol Swenson
Admin
Member # 6929

posted

Hi Eden,

I think maybe you meant to say yahsway instead of me in your greeting?

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Eden
unregistered

posted

Hi, Carol Swenson and becauseHElives, I agree with identifying that I believe in the God of Israel and not in some other God.

One thing I like about the KJV is its consistency with the titles and names of:

The KJV English word "LORD" (all caps) always translates "YHWH" in the Hebrew Old Testament.

The KJV English word "Lord" (initial-capped only_ always translates "Adonai" in the Hebrew Old Testament.

The KJV English word "lord" {all lowercase letters) always translates "Baal" in the Hebrew Old Testament.

The KJV English word "God" always translates "Elohim" in the Hebrew Old Testament.

Now, when the Hebrew was "adonai YHWY", the KJV English would have been "Lord LORD", but because that is awkward in English, the KJV translators translated all occurrences of Adonai YHWH as "Lord GOD", with Adonai retained as "Lord" but YHWH changed to GOD with all caps.

Anyone who reads the KJV and sees "Lord GOD" thus should know that the Hebrew under "Lord GOD" is always "adonai YHWH".

One thing that is beautiful about the King James Version (KJV) is that the KJV remains consistent throughout with LORD for YHWY, an Lord for Adonai, and lord for Baal, and Elohim for God and Lord GOD for Adonai YHWH.

In this way we can always understand which aspect or aspects of the Godhead is or are operational at that moment in the Bible.

So LORD and Lord and lord and God and Lord GOD have their values to the careful reader of the KJV for which, I would think, the LORD God (YHWH Elohim) of Israel is very pleased.

with love, eden

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yahsway
Advanced Member
Member # 3738

posted

God and Lord are simply titles Not names.

Yeshua is the Lord of lords.
Yahweh is the One God.

Since there are many different gods and many different lords, I personally do not like to use titles but specify in which God I worship.

You can be speaking with a Muslim and they dont always use the name Allah, but also refer to him as a title that being "god"

I totally agree with becauseHelives. When ones shouts HallaluYah, Yah being the name of God, not just a title, we are proclaiming "Praise the NAME of Yah.

When we say Praise God, that could mean different things to different people depending on which "god" they worship.

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becauseHElives
Advanced Member
Member # 87

posted

I do not use those terms when writing myself...

G-d, L-rd this must be something I posted from another site....but when these abbreviations are used generally someone understands your are speaking of the One True Living God "Yahweh"

When writing myself I use Yahweh and Yeshua their proper names because I think it only right if I know Their names I should use them.

while I do like KJV, I am not a KJV only proponent, there are many wrong translations in the KJV.

The term God can mean any God...

God Buddha
God Allah
God Krishna
God Mohamed

But here is only One True Living God, His name is Yahweh and His only begotten Son is Yeshua (another spelling Yahushua).

below is taken from another web site, their information should be given careful consideration of serious student of scriptures, while I agree with this there is some things on their site I don't agree with, I give no link for this reason. the site is easy enough to find if you care to investagate.

The most common question I hear among those that I share the truth of the name is "Doesn't Yahweh know who I'm talking to? Why does it matter what I call Him, He answers me anyway?"

I believe that it is true. Yahweh does and will answer prayer and accept praise from those who have no knowledge of His true name. But what about those who DO know but don't care?

Psal 44:20 (NKJV) If we had forgotten the name of our Elohim,
Or stretched out our hands to a foreign god,
21 Would not Elohim search this out?
For He knows the secrets of the heart.

What does Yahweh really want us to do on this issue? Continue to call Him whatever we want? Or to call Him by the name He has assigned to Himself?

I do not think there is anything wrong with calling Yahweh our Father, Master, Creator, etc. which are all fitting titles. What I think Yahweh would have a real problem with is changing His name from Yahweh to "Lord" It is extremely ironic, if not prophetic what Yahweh declared to Jeremiah when we understand that the word "Baal" means "Lord."

Jere 23:26,27 "How long will this be in the heart of the prophets who prophesy lies? Indeed they are prophets of the deceit of their own heart, who try to make My people forget My name by their dreams which everyone tells his neighbor, as their fathers forgot My name for Baal."(LORD)

Also consider what Yahweh declared to Hosea:

Hose 2:16 (KJV) And it shall be at that day, saith Yahweh, that thou shalt call me Ishi (My Husband); and shalt call me no more Baali. (My lord) For I will take away the names of Baalim out of her mouth, and they shall no more be remembered by their name.

I tell you, it struck me as odd that Baal's name is never changed or translated and therefore lives on while Yahweh's name is falsified over 7000 times in scripture! But I think I might know why. See here, if they did try to translate the name Baal, then there is one thing they would have to deal with. Look at how the verse would read if they did not restore Yahweh's name:

1Kin 18:21 (NKJV) And Elijah came to all the people, and said, "How long will you falter between two opinions? If the Lord is God, follow Him; but if Lord (Baal), follow him." But the people answered him not a word.

One might be quite confused when reading the text. Because of this relationship between Baal and Lord, I prefer not to use Lord at all. Lord is the word used to replace Yahweh's name. I'm not saying that the entire Christian world is worshiping "Baal", but the coincidence here seems quite striking.

It is truth that many times in scripture, we see His people calling on His name. Men during the time of Adam called on the name of Yahweh

Gene 4:26 (NKJV) And as for Seth, to him also a son was born; and he named him Enosh. Then [men] began to call on the name of Yahweh.

Abraham called upon the name of Yahweh:

Gene 12:7 (NKJV) Then Yahweh appeared to Abram and said, "To your descendants I will give this land." And there he built an altar to Yahweh, who had appeared to him. 8 And he moved from there to the mountain east of Bethel, and he pitched his tent [with] Bethel on the west and Ai on the east; there he built an altar to Yahweh and called on the name of Yahweh.

Moshe called upon the name of Yahweh:

Exod 3:15 (NKJV) Moreover Elohim said to Moses, "Thus you shall say to the children of Israel: `Yahweh Elohim of your fathers, the Elohim of Abraham, the Elohim of Isaac, and the Elohim of Jacob, has sent me to you. This is My name forever, and this is My memorial to all generations.'

David called upon the name of Yahweh:

Psal 116:13 (KJV) I will take the cup of salvation, and call upon the name of Yahweh.

Psal 116:17 (KJV) I will offer to thee the sacrifice of thanksgiving, and will call upon the name of Yahweh.

EliYah the prophet called upon the name of Yahweh:

1Kin 18:24 (NKJV) "Then you call on the name of your gods, and I will call on the name of Yahweh; and the Elohim who answers by fire, He is Elohim." So all the people answered and said, "It is well spoken."

Yahushua the Messiah called upon the name of Yahweh:

John 17:25 (NKJV) "O righteous Father! The world has not known You, but I have known You; and these have known that You sent Me. 26 "And I have declared to them Your name, and will declare [it], that the love with which You loved Me may be in them, and I in them."

What more do we need? If the scriptures are written for our learning and righteous men for our example, do the scriptures not clearly show that HIS people call on His name? Let's see what else the word of Yahweh says:

Isai 52:6 (NKJV) Therefore My people shall know My name; Therefore they shall know in that day That I am He who speaks: `Behold, it is I.' "

Let's look at an end time prophecy. Will Yahweh's people be calling on His name at that time, in this age?

Zech 13:7 (NKJV) "Awake, O sword, against My Shepherd, Against the Man who is My Companion," Says Yahweh of hosts. "Strike the Shepherd, And the sheep will be scattered; Then I will turn My hand against the little ones.
8 And it shall come to pass in all the land," Says Yahweh, "That two-thirds in it shall be cut off and die, But one- third shall be left in it:
9 I will bring the [one]-third through the fire, Will refine them as silver is refined, And test them as gold is tested. They will call on My name, And I will answer them. I will say, `This [is] My people'; And each one will say, `Yahweh is my Elohim.' "

Here is another prophetic scripture reveals His people are using His name:

Reve 14:1 (NKJV) Then I looked, and behold, a Lamb standing on Mount Zion, and with Him one hundred [and] forty-four thousand, having His Father's name written on their foreheads.

Clearly, His people use His name. Some have said that these scriptures that speak of His name do not actually speak of the literal spoken and written name of Yahweh but rather His character and reputation. A simple study of the meaning of the word "Shem" that is translated "name" in our english bibles will reveal that this word, very much like our English word, not only means a "character" but also means a literal written and spoken name. If I say to you that I come in the name of peace, then I am telling you that I want to characterize myself as offering peace. These things are indeed true.

However, if I told you that my name was JimBob then I would not be telling you the truth. Here is an example of a falsification:

Isai 42:8 (NKJV) I am Yahweh, that is My name; And My glory I will not give to another, Nor My praise to carved images.

has been changed to:

Isai 42:8 (NKJV) I am the Lord, that is My name; And My glory I will not give to another, Nor My praise to carved images.

The latter statement is simply not true! And its not like it was a simple mistake by the translators. It was completely on purpose. And it had unscriptural intentions. Most prefaces of bible translations will cite familiarity and tradition as the reasons for the substitutions. This is clearly against what Yahweh has told us to do in the scriptures. (many of which I have indexed on this Home Page).

If we say HalleluYah, we can know what it really means! (HalleluYAH means "Praise You YAHweh") When we end a prayer in Yahushua's name, we can know what it really means. (YAHushua means "YAHweh is salvation") When we speak to Yahweh, it is on a personal basis through a personal name. If we proclaim Yahweh, we can know that we are proclaiming His name, just as all those in scriptures have done.

As Moshe said:

Deut 32:1 (NKJV) "Give ear, O heavens, and I will speak; And hear, O earth, the words of my mouth. 2 Let my teaching drop as the rain, My speech distill as the dew, As raindrops on the tender herb, And as showers on the grass. 3 For I proclaim the name of Yahweh: Ascribe greatness to our Elohim.

I believe it all comes down to a choice. Whether one will choose the excuses of
men or the word of Yahweh Almighty.

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Strive to enter in at the strait gate:for many, I say unto you will seek to enter in, and shall not be able. ( Luke 13:24 )

Posts: 4578 | From: Southeast Texas | Registered: Jun 2002 | IP: Logged |

Eden
unregistered

posted

Hi, becauseHElives. You said

quote:
the G-d of Israel...and the house of the L-rd.

I see you have bought into the cultic idea that the name of God ought not to be pronounced by people, and should always be written G-d.

I think you have said before that you like the King James Version (KJV) of the Bible...so, were all the translators of the KJV wrong when they "blithely" wrote God and Lord in the KJV?

God Elohim and the LORD YHWH and Lord Adonai love to hear their names, becauseHElives. You are being cultic and legalistic when you use G-d and L-rd as if that is somehow "being more sanctified" or "respectful".

God and the Lord is your Father. Perhaps you'd like to be consistent and call Him F-th-r too?

love, eden

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