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Author
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Topic: Who is the gospel for?
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WhiteEagle
Advanced Member
Member # 3728
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posted
I believe the gospels all complement each other and add to the total record of Christ's ministry.
There is only one Gospel. True the Jews are the ones to whom Christ came to initially. They were looking for a King. They had the Torah.
We as gentile Christians are grafted in to all that now. We are now the children of the Kingdom as well as the Jews who accept Christ.
Posts: 1392 | From: Maine | Registered: Aug 2004
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epouraniois
unregistered
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posted
Isaiah is certainly one, one of many, who detail the echoes first promised to Abraham,
Gen 12:3 And I will bless them that bless thee, and curse him that curseth thee: and in thee shall all families of the earth be blessed.
Gen 18:18 Seeing that Abraham shall surely become a great and mighty nation, and all the nations of the earth shall be blessed in him?
Seems to me there are four Gospels, and in John, it can be easily noted that he does not use the word repent even once. Nor is hell the subject, but the details to explain what the Jew would need no explanation for, and in this we have John, and some 10 exterpelations making those Jewish things clear so that a gentile can understand.
Note the difference in the number of times the word 'world' is used in the other three compared to John's 100 times.
Edited In:
I would ask if there is large belief of being only one Good News Message in the Bible? If one were to boil it down, I reckon that salvation in the Blood Of God is toward resurrection life is a foundational message, for without resurrection there is no life to come. But is it true that Mathew's good news {Mat 1:21} "And she shall bring forth a son, and thou shalt call his name JESUS: for he shall save his people from their sins" is really the same as {Joh 3:16} "For God so loved the world, that he gave his only begotten Son, that whosoever believeth in him should not perish, but have everlasting life."
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For one thing, in Mathew we read of that which was prophecied to come, for Israel, and in John we find, for the first time in all of Scripture, that God loves the world, and gave His life for "whosoever believeth", not just Israel, but the whole world.
In Mathew we have the happenstance and article of the Lord in their midsts, to and for Israel's expecting OT kingdom, but John's Gospel doesn't seem to be held back to that tiny nation of promise only, written much later, to the end, not that Israel might believe, but that "ye might believe...":
Joh 20:30 And many other signs truly did Jesus in the presence of his disciples, which are not written in this book:
Joh 20:31 But these are written, that ye might believe that Jesus is the Christ, the Son of God; and that believing ye might have life through his name.
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WhiteEagle
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Member # 3728
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quote:
Originally posted by epouraniois:
I believe that three of the Gospels, or accounts of the Good News, were appointed for Israel, while John is the Gospel, or Good News sent to the non believing world. World occurring exactly one hundred times, the number of ordinal perfection governing all, ten times ten.
While the Lord says plainly He came not but for the lost of Israel, the OT is clear that He came for both Houses, not just one or the other. Additionally, we have the Lord's own words on this:
Mat 10:5 These twelve Jesus sent forth, and commanded them, saying, Go not into the way of the Gentiles, and into any city of the Samaritans enter ye not:
Mat 10:6 But go rather to the lost sheep of the house of Israel.
Mat 10:7 And as ye go, preach, saying, The kingdom of heaven is at hand.
Only Israel would have known what kingdom was meant here, for they and they alone had the oracles of God and promises of their fathers.
The very last book written during the Acts offer of the times of refreshing supports this rather strongly:
Rom 9:5 Whose are the fathers, and of whom as concerning the flesh Christ came, who is over all, God blessed forever. Amen. {Truth}.
Jesus Christ is the Messiah prophecied of by the Old Testament believers, such as Isaiah. Isaiah prophecied that this Messiah would be the hope for the Gentiles also. He prophecied that the Messiah would be "despised and rejected of men, a man of sorrows and aquainted with grief" Isreal would reject their Messiah.
Daniel talks about the 40 weeks of the House of Isreal. There is a period of 3 1/2 years which belongs to Isreal and the the Messiah is "cut off"
I believe this time period refers to Jesus' 3 1/2 years ministry to the Jews.
Jesus came to the lost sheep of Israel and He was rejected by his own. "His own received Him not."
There is only ONE gospel. Matthew, Mark, Luke, and John all tell the same Gospel.
Posts: 1392 | From: Maine | Registered: Aug 2004
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epouraniois
unregistered
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posted
I believe that three of the Gospels, or accounts of the Good News, were appointed for Israel, while John is the Gospel, or Good News sent to the non believing world. World occurring exactly one hundred times, the number of ordinal perfection governing all, ten times ten.
While the Lord says plainly He came not but for the lost of Israel, the OT is clear that He came for both Houses, not just one or the other. Additionally, we have the Lord's own words on this:
Mat 10:5 These twelve Jesus sent forth, and commanded them, saying, Go not into the way of the Gentiles, and into any city of the Samaritans enter ye not:
Mat 10:6 But go rather to the lost sheep of the house of Israel.
Mat 10:7 And as ye go, preach, saying, The kingdom of heaven is at hand.
Only Israel would have known what kingdom was meant here, for they and they alone had the oracles of God and promises of their fathers.
The very last book written during the Acts offer of the times of refreshing supports this rather strongly:
Rom 9:5 Whose are the fathers, and of whom as concerning the flesh Christ came, who is over all, God blessed forever. Amen. {Truth}.
Interesting is the Lord's stop in mid verse, displaying His acknowledgment of the need to rightly divide the word of truth. It is always a wonderful thing to find the Lord acknowledging that which we also are warned to observe. For if the Lord had continued, then the time of vengance would have need to have been also at hand, not to be taken up in explanation until we arrive at Luk 21:22; "For these be the days of vengeance, that all things which are written may be fulfilled".
I believe, and this is different than most {suprise suprise} that there is ample evidence in the Gospel record of John, that not only was it written to the whole world, but before the fall of Jerusalem in 69-70 A.D., note the references to the pools that then still stood at the time of John's writing...
Note a common misconception towards Joh 1:11:
He came unto his own, and his own received him not.
his own = Neuter plural, meaning unto His own possessions (His kingdom) whereas 'and His own received Him not' = masculine gender, His own people.
The seemingly small variation changes the entire conceptual basis of any afterthought or mention. {many a sermon breaks upon this rock}.
Therefore, John is writing at a time when He realizes Christ had come to and brought with, His possessions, but His people did not receive Him. The question begs then, does John mean His people during the flesh ministry did not receive Him, or that overall, His people as a nation refused to receive Him?
I believe the evidencary transactions of both historical and Biblical grammar posssess the answer, and give us this point that John knows full well the Salavation of God had been sent to the nations, that Isaiah 6:10 had been affirmed, making this a late Gospel for the world, written sometime after Paul's ministry, but was not speaking to or of the dispensation of the mystery. Moreover, John could not have very well been speaking to or of the dispensation of the mystery having seen his name on the wall of the city having twelve foundations, and in them the names of the twelve apostles of the Lamb - Rev 21:14, recalling that the husbandman that laboreth must be first partaker of the fruits - 2Ti 2:6.
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KnowHim
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Member # 1
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The Spirit of the Lord is upon me, because he has anointed me to preach the gospel to the poor; he has sent me to heal the brokenhearted, to preach deliverance to the captives, and recovering of sight to the blind, to set at liberty them that are bruised,... Luke 4:18
Who is the gospel for?
Jesus gives us a summation of who the gospel is for: the poor, the brokenhearted, the captives, the blind, the bruised (oppressed). Jesus is not referring to those who lack financial resources when He speaks of the poor. The word means “meek, humble, lowly” and refers to the “poor in spirit” (Matthew 5:3)—the blessed ones to whom the kingdom of God belongs. The poor are those who know that they are destitute of righteousness.
The brokenhearted refers not to unhappy people who have been jilted by a sweetheart, but to those who, like Peter and Isaiah, are contrite and sorrowing for their sin. Matthew Henry wrote of Jesus, “For He was sent to heal the brokenhearted, to give peace to those that were troubled and humbled for sins, and to bring them to rest who were weary and heavy-laden, under the burden of guilt and corruption.”
The captives are those “taken captive by [the devil] at his will” (2 Timothy 2:26). The blind are those whom “the god of this world has blinded...[to] the light of the glorious gospel of Christ” (2 Corinthians 4:4).
The oppressed are those who are “oppressed of the devil” (Acts 10:38). The gospel of grace is for the humble, not the proud. God resists the proud, but gives grace to the humble (James 4:6). The Scriptures tell us, “Every one that is proud in heart is an abomination to the Lord” (Proverbs 16:5). He sets on high those who are lowly, and those who mourn are lifted to safety (Job 5:11). God looks on the man who is poor and of a contrite spirit, and who trembles at His Word (Isaiah 66:2). Only the sick need a physician, and only those who are convinced of the disease of sin will appreciate and appropriate the cure of the gospel.
By: Ray Comfort
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Posts: 3276 | From: Charlestown, IN | Registered: Jun 2002
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